Is Homosexuality a Sin?

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You're assuming "facts" not in evidence, as if the verses you listed say what you think they mean.

Moses, under inspiration of God, was careful to frame his remarks in the context of pagan worship of false gods and shrine prostitution, Lev 18:3 and 21.

The Leviticus 20:13 passage is set in the context of Lev 20:2, 3, 4, 5 and 23.

http://www.gaychristian101.com/Shrine-Prostitutes.html

Even Dr. Gagnon, the leading anti-gay crusader, admits that "homosexual cult prostitution appears to have been the primary form in which homosexual intercourse was practiced in Israel."

Dr. Gagnon also admits that the historical context of the Levitical prohibition is shrine prostitution. Although Dr. Gagnon views Lev 18:22 and 20:13 as prohibitions of all homosexual practice including lesbian practice, on pages 100 - 110 of his book, Dr. Gagnon makes a strong case that the context of Lev 18:22 and 20:13 is shrine prostitution.

http://www.gaychristian101.com/Cult-Prostitutes.html

Scripture cannot mean NOW what it did not mean THEN.

If the context was shrine prostitution THEN, we must understand the Levitical prohibitions in the context of shrine prostitution NOW.

Further, the standard first century Jewish understanding of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 was that they prohibited male-male incest with males of the same degree of relationship prohibited to females in those chapters.

Philo, a contemporary of Jesus and the Apostle Paul, believed that Moses' use of arsenos koiten in Leviticus 20:13 referred to shrine prostitution.

Philo, The Special Laws, III, VII, 40-42.

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/yonge/book29.html

We know absolutely, with complete certainty, that arsenokoitai was not used in the first century as a general reference to homosexuals.

How can we be absolutely certain that is true?

Because in the first 56 usages of the arsenokoit stem, from Paul's first use and covering the next 600 years of church history, the word arsenokoitai is NEVER used as a general reference to homosexuals.