Is Homosexuality a Sin?

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Among the many misinterpretations of these passages, Jude 7 is particularly interesting. It has been argued that there was no Greek word for homosexual. In fact, the concept of homosexual and heterosexual is a recent development. There was no need to specifically differentiate because sexual expression is exclusively defined in the Bible as that between a man and a woman. Any other expression was considered a perversion of this exclusive design. Therefore the argument that heteros is referring to a heterosexual offense is not logical. In fact, heteros means “other.” Traditional interpretation states that “strange flesh” is referring to the angelic beings hosted by Lot. This is similar to the situation in Genesis 6:2 when the “sons of God” mingled with “the daughters of men.” In addition, Jude 6 describes the fallen angels. Jude 7 states: “as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities around them in a similar manner to these, having given themselves over to sexual immorality and gone after strange flesh . . . ” The key factors are “these” and “strange flesh” which both refer to the angels.

Also, the reasoning of the derivation of the words homosexual and heterosexual is backwards. Just because we derived our word “heterosexual” from the Greek root heteros does not mean that the Greek definition implies the opposite sex. It simply means “opposite” just as homoios means “same.” This is a perfect example of forcing a desired and preferred meaning into the text.

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This post raises some interesting questions.

An unidentified person from Exodus wrote:

"It has been argued that there was no Greek word for homosexual. In fact, the concept of homosexual and heterosexual is a recent development."

That being true, how does one conclude that the Bible condemns committed, faithful, non-cultic same sex partnerships since the concept of homosexual and heterosexual are recent developments?

An unidentified person from Exodus wrote:

"There was no need to specifically differentiate because sexual expression is exclusively defined in the Bible as that between a man and a woman."

Your statements are mutually exclusive. You cannot logically claim that our modern concept of heterosexual is a recent development and then argue that this "recent development" is exclusively defined in the Bible (2000 to 3400 years ago) as "between a man and a woman" (heterosexuality).

The dramatic love story of Jonathan and David is a vivid portrayal of committed, same sex love in the Bible.

http://www.gaychristian101.com/David-Loved-Jonathan.html

Concerning Jude 7, many anti-gay crusaders use Jude 7 as a proof text to condemn homosexuals. They falsely assert that Jude 7 is a reference to homosexuality.

The fact that God and Jude used the Greek word, heteros, from which we get our English word, heterosexual, and not the Greek word homoios, from which we get our English word, homosexual, indicates that the point at issue for Jude and for God, is not homosexuality.

http://www.gaychristian101.com/Against-Nature.html